LaVrai.COM - The Truth - Lord Vs. LORD In The Book Of Psalms

In Psalms 2:4-7, King David writes: He who is enthroned in heaven laughs; the Lord mocks at them. Then He speaks to them in anger, terrifying them in His rage, “But I have installed My king on Zion, My holy mountain!” Let me tell of the decree: the LORD said to me, “You are My son, I have fathered you this day.”

I am curious to know why the Tanakh (Jewish Bible) refers to GOD as both ‘the Lord’ and ‘the LORD’ in the Book of Psalms. It appears that David is speaking of GOD when he writes ‘He who is enthroned in heaven.’ Yet the almost common, uncapped ‘Lord’ is used as opposed to the the very proper capped ‘LORD.’ I know in various parts of the Bible that ‘Lord’ is used if someone says ‘my Lord,’ for example, as is found in Genesis 18:22-33 where Abraham speaks with GOD. If King David is speaking of the same GOD (as he must be since the LORD our GOD is one), why would he use ‘Lord’ and not ‘LORD’ in every instance that he speaks of HIM?

Also, is the LORD talking to David and calling the king His son? Is the LORD saying He has ‘fathered [David] this day’? Is the LORD talking about David when He says, “..I have installed My king on Zion, My holy mountain”? In Psalms 3:5 David writes, “I cry aloud to the LORD, and He answers me from His holy mountain.” If David was the ‘king installed on Zion,’ the ‘holy mountain,’ he wouldn’t need to cry aloud as he would already be on Zion.

Is the reader to infer that there are three persons involved in Psalms 2:4-9? Could the LORD be telling this other ‘Lord’ “You are My son, I have fathered you this day’? Is this Lord the king installed on Zion, GOD’s holy mountain? Is King David prophesying in the place of this third person, this Lord? Is David quoting this Lord?

There are two other places in Psalms where David uses ‘the Lord’ when apparently speaking of GOD. In verses 40:18 and 44:24, which read, respectively:

But I am poor and needy; may the Lord devise [deliverance] for me. You are my help and my rescuer; my God, do not delay.

Rouse Yourself; why do You sleep, O Lord? [compare to Psalms 3:2, 3:4, 3:8, 4:2, 5;2, etc.]

Why would David refer to GOD as ‘Lord’ in some verses and then ‘LORD’ in others? If King David was not speaking of one person, who is this other powerful person he speaks to and of as if this person was GOD? Why the distinction if he is not saying ‘my Lord’ but ‘the LORD?’

In Psalms 22:17 it reads: Dogs surround me; a pack of evil ones closes in on me, like lions [they maul] my hands and feet.

I find it curious that “dogs” are compared to “lions” when both can maul. And why are the hands and feet supposedly mauled, as opposed to arms and legs, which are usually the targets when a dog mauls someone. I only ask this because ‘maul’ was inserted into the text as a suggestion by the editors. It seems like an odd choice (considering that ‘hands and feet’ follow) I would like to know why they chose to suggest ‘maul’ instead of another verb [like 'pierce' as other translations use].

In Psalms 96:11-13 it reads, Let the heavens rejoice and the earth exult; let the sea and all within it thunder, the fields and everything in them exult; then shall the trees of the forest shout for joy at the presence of the LORD, for He is coming, for He is coming to rule the earth; He will rule the world justly and its peoples in faithfulness.

David is speaking of the LORD here, so why does he write “He is coming to rule the earth”? According to other Messianic passages, it is the Anointed man of GOD, from the tribe of Judah (and thus a descendant of King David) who will rule the earth and restore Israel and give all the peoples of the earth true peace [see Isaiah 11, for example].

David goes on to say in Psalms 97: The LORD is king! Let the earth exult, and the many islands rejoice! …mountains melt like wax at the LORD’s presence, at the presence of the Lord of all the earth. …all divine beings bow down to Him. …For You, LORD, are supreme over all the earth; You are exalted high above all divine beings.

Again there are two versions of ‘lord’ here: ‘Mountains melt like wax at the LORD’s presence, at the presence of the Lord…” Why would King David switch suddenly from one term to the next when he is presumably still talking about GOD Almighty? Do the editors/translators of the Tanakh want us to think that there is a third person in the mix — David, GOD (the LORD) and another person (the Lord)?

There is also Psalms 110:1, which reads in the Tanakh: The LORD said to my lord, “Sit at My right hand while I make your enemies your footstool.”

Now we have a third ‘lord.’ This ‘lord’ is not the LORD (GOD) nor the Lord enthroned in heaven (Psalms 24:4), as previously noted in King David’s writings. This is a common, ‘regular’ lord, if you will, that the editors/ translators of the Tanakh are giving readers. This common, mortal person (lord) is being spoken to by the LORD (GOD). GOD tells this person to sit at His right hand while He makes his enemies his footstool. This is an interesting verse… for who is worthy to sit at the right hand of GOD Almighty? Which mortal, common man do the editors/translators of the Tanakh want us to believe is worthy to be seated at the right hand of GOD?

Suddenly, King David says, in Psalms 110:5, The Lord is at your right hand. He crushes kings in the day of His anger.

This is a very confusing passage. GOD tells someone to sit at His right hand while He makes his enemies his footstool. Then David says, ‘The Lord is at your right hand.’ …To whom is David speaking…and about whom is he speaking? He couldn’t possibly be speaking to the same person whom the LORD GOD is addressing because David uses the term ‘Lord,’ who is supposedly enthroned in heaven.

If GOD says to ‘my lord’ “Sit at My right hand…” how can David then go on to say ‘the Lord’ is at your right hand? On one hand, you would think David is saying this back to GOD, as in, “LORD (GOD Almighty), the Lord (enthroned in heaven) is sitting at Your right hand.” But David can’t be talking to GOD, based on the Tanakh translation, because King David uses ‘your’ common instead of ‘Your’ proper as one would when speaking of the LORD (GOD Almighty).

So who on earth do the editors/translators of the Tanakh (Jewish Bible) want readers to believe King David is addressing as ‘lord’ and ‘Lord?’ King David would never have referred to the LORD with a common ‘your.’ Is it possible King David had written this song about himself? Is he the ‘lord’ and is it his ‘your’ being spoken of?

If King David was not found worthy to build the LORD’s Temple, then how on earth would he be found worthy to sit at the right hand of GOD? In 1 Chronicles 28:3, King David tells what the LORD spoke to him: “You will not build a house for My name, for you are a man of battles and have shed blood…”

King David would never have been so presumptuous as to write a song for the Levite priests to sing about him, knowing full well that, although he loved the LORD with all his being, if he was rejected by GOD to build the temple, then he most certainly would not have been invited to sit at GOD’s right hand on His throne.

Are we to infer then that it is his son, King Solomon, who did build the Temple, that is being invited by the LORD (GOD Almighty) to sit with Him on His throne? 1 Kings 1 reveals that King Solomon loved many foreign women…from the nations of which the LORD had said to the Israelites, “None of you shall join them and none of them shall join you…” Such Solomon clung to and loved…and his wives turned his heart away… his wives turned Solomon’s heart after other gods, and he was not as wholeheartedly devoted to the LORD his God as his father David had been. …The LORD was angry with Solomon, because his heart turned away from the LORD, the God of Israel… And the LORD said to Solomon, “Because you are guilty of this…I will tear the kingdom away from you and give it to one of your servants…”

Does that sound like King Solomon would have been invited to sit at GOD’s right hand to share His throne…when he wasn’t even found worthy to remain on his own earthly throne?

It is quite likely that Psalm 110:1 should actually read: The LORD said to my Lord, “Sit at My right hand while I make your enemies your footstool.”

But for some reason, the editors/translators of the Tanakh (Jewish Bible) want readers to believe King David was writing of himself (presumably for others to sing).

Based on Messianic prophecies, there is only one person worthy to sit at the right hand of GOD, and he is the shoot from the stump of Jesse (Isaiah 11), a man called the Branch (Zechariah 6:9-15, which those who seek understanding should read carefully), one of David’s own issue (Psalms 132:11-18)…the redeemer of Israel, the one who will bring peace to the entire world — he is the only one found worthy to sit on the right hand of the LORD on His throne. He is the Lord, the one to whom “all divine beings bow down,” the one whom GOD calls “My son.”

Psalm 110 Is not about King David and it is not about King Solomon. People, stop believing a lie. Psalm 110 speaks of GOD’s Anointed One, the Messiah.